Does God have a daddy?

If you have any familiarity with the latest atheist propaganda then you have heard of the story in the book of Deuteronomy 32:8-9 and claiming this means the God of Israel had a father.In this blog we will examine this theory and why it’s false!

בְּהַנְחֵ֤ל עֶלְיוֹן֙ גּוֹיִ֔ם בְּהַפְרִיד֖וֹ בְּנֵ֣י אָדָ֑ם יַצֵּב֙ גְּבֻלֹ֣ת 8

עַמִּ֔ים לְמִסְפַּ֖ר בְּנֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵֽל

כִּ֛י חֵ֥לֶק יְהֹוָ֖ה עַמּ֑וֹ יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב חֶ֥בֶל נַֽחֲלָתֽוֹ 9

Here is the King James version

⁸ When the Most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when

he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people

according to the number of the children of Israel.(some versions of the DSS say “according to the children of God”

⁹ For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.

Here is my take on 32:8 in very modern words:

“In the endowment to the nations the” highest” separated humankind and set up borders of people(nations) according to the numbers of the children of Israel”

32:9-

“Because the portion of the Lord God is his people,his land(part) is Yaakov/Jacob(the Jews)”

This is where atheists assert that this means עליון elyon meaning highest is the father of יהוה The Lord God.Meaning they think that YHVH is the god allotted to the Jews by elyon “the most high”

First lets start with the basic meaning here,so after the rebellion at the tower of Bavel and the languages were confused and now people became nations out of a one world nation.So God disinherited the gentile nations for the rebellion at Bavel and made his endowment the seed of Yaakov/Jacob (the Jews).You notice the name Jacob is used as opposed to Avraham or Yitzchak/Isaac ,this is clear to invalidate Islam (Islam is the seed of Yishmael son of Isaac) so the use of Yaakov/Jacob excludes Islam from Gods inheritance(not to say Abraham and Isaac were not righteous but Yishmael was not).So the gentiles were cut off from God and some believe they were given angels as babysitters ,others say demons were assigned to rule over them(see Psalm 82) others say they made up fake gods to worship but we’re not addressing that right now.A version of the Dead Sea scrolls said the nations were divided by the “sons of god” not the children of Israel (I’m not a DSS expert)but in any case the gentiles are divided by nation and are under the tutelage of gods other than the Lord God.

It makes more sense that it is saying יהוה The Lord God is the most high or highest god.The holy name means creator ,the one who causes to be.Would it make sense that a god subserviant to elyon “the highest” would be the creator of the highest.God is not always referred to as the tetragrammaton ,often Elohim ,El shadai or El among others.I think clearly it means The Lord God is the highest.Also if the atheist theory is right then why is it written then,wouldn’t the ancient scribes have tried to hide or erase the passage if that was the intent.

What exactly does the word “elyon” עליון mean anyway?

Rooted in the word “al” על meaning upon,beside or before ,the word elyon means upper,upper most,top or supreme or highest which are aspects of God but elyon is not a name of God.It looks similar but is not related at all to Elohim or El ,they are spelled in Hebrew totally differently,the name El/Elohim begin with the letter Alef א but the word elyon begins with Ayin ע so absolutely no relation what so ever.We also must remember that the Torah was written to the first temple Judaism era ,an era where the notion of monotheism was very new.Monotheism being such a novelty people from that time needed a constant reminder that the God of Israel was the highest god.So this is why the term highest or most high was used but was never meant to say there was a god higher than the Biblical God.

We often forget that much of Bible was written for the point of view of the people of that time.Another thing to remember is the deception of chapter and verse and context.In the original Torah and the other books of the Tanakh/Old Testament is that they originally had no chapter and verse in them,also so I believe with the NT Greek scrolls too.If I remember correctly chapter and verse did not appear until the Roman Catholic Church compiled it’s Biblical canon in Latin and then chapter and verse was added,I think like 5th century (I could be wrong on exact dates but chapter and verse was not in any original BIble scrolls,C&V I believe came with Codex Bibles not the scroll form)So if Deut.32:8-9 and 10 I believe also were meant as one phrase originally then YHVH and the most high were the same in that context.C&V tricks us into thinking that 8,9,10 were separate statements but were really one statement.

No,God does not have a daddy!